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Consolidated statement of financial position

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FA Financial Accounting Forums › Consolidated statement of financial position

  • This topic has 3 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by mrjonbain.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 23, 2015 at 8:52 pm #278630
    Momena
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Can you plz help me with this question
    On 31st july 20×7 P aquired 60% of the 100,000 $1 ordinary shares of S for a sum of $240,000. S had acc profit at 1st jan 20×7 of $200,000 and during the year to 31st dec 20×7 made a profit of $60,000
    What is the fig for purchased goodwill attributable to the equity owner of P that should appear at 31st dec 20×7 in consolidated statement of financial position
    A. 60,000
    B. 39,000
    C. 95,000
    D.24,000
    Mine ans is 60,000 but its actual ans is 39,000….why?

    October 24, 2015 at 10:50 pm #278776
    HazE
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 84
    • ☆☆

    Ok lets see
    The profit made of 60,000 is for the whole year, so if we divide it per months it would be 5000 per month and since P acquired S on 31st of July so thats 7 months of profit thats pre-acquisiton which makes the profit account total 200.000 + (7*5000)=235000

    Since they acquire 60 percent of shares so
    60 percent of 235000= 141000
    So goodwill is
    60,000 shares plus 141000 = 201,000 and subtract this from the consideration paid of 240,000 gives us 39000
    Makes Sense?? hopefully

    October 26, 2015 at 9:24 pm #279134
    Sir Insanity
    Participant
    • Topics: 28
    • Replies: 44
    • ☆☆

    @hazzy said:
    Ok lets see
    The profit made of 60,000 is for the whole year, so if we divide it per months it would be 5000 per month and since P acquired S on 31st of July so thats 7 months of profit thats pre-acquisiton which makes the profit account total 200.000 + (7*5000)=235000

    Since they acquire 60 percent of shares so
    60 percent of 235000= 141000
    So goodwill is
    60,000 shares plus 141000 = 201,000 and subtract this from the consideration paid of 240,000 gives us 39000
    Makes Sense?? hopefully

    Hey, can you explain why you took the 60 percent? …Coz from what I know, goodwill is calculated as Contribution Paid + Fair Value of NCI – Net Assets of Subs. at Acquisition…

    Firstly, I assume the value of NCI has been omitted from the question, otherwise I don’t know how one could go about it. Anyway, if the answer is 39,000, I’ll assume that value of NCI was given as 134,000 (backward working).

    Now: Acc. Profit (Retained Earnings) at acquisition will be, as shown by HazE: 235000
    Add the Ordinary share capital to get total net assets at acquisition: 235000 + 100,000 = 335,000

    Answer:
    Contribution – 240,000
    ADD NCI —– 134,000 (Momena, check if NCI was given in the origianl q.?)
    DEDUCT Net Assets at Acquisition – (335,000)
    Goodwill —– 39,000

    I may be wrong, but I believe this is how we go about it

    October 27, 2015 at 10:19 am #279229
    mrjonbain
    Moderator
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 2455
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Its basically because the question asks “what is the fig for the purchased goodwill attributable to equity owner P”.This is why the proportionate method for valuing goodwill has been used and not the full goodwill method.This is why sixty per cent has been used.

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