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Consolidated P&L

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FA – FIA FFA › Consolidated P&L

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 11, 2015 at 5:51 pm #275889
    racucamelia
    Member
    • Topics: 34
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    Hi John,

    I have the following problem. Helsinki bought 75% of Stockolm at 30.06.20X6.

    At 31.12.20X6, the figures in P&L were:

    Helsinki Stockolm

    Revenue 200.000 100.000
    Cost of sales 110.000 50.000
    Profit for the year 27.000 14.000

    During post aquisition, S sold goods to H. The goods originally cost 10 million and they were sold to H at a 25% mark-up. At 31.12.20×6, H still had 40% of these goods in inventory.

    Calculate the consolidated P&L.

    I calculated the PURP and it resultes to be 2500. The sales, the, were 12.500 (deductible from revenue & cost of sales).

    The amount that remained in inventory was 1000 (40% of 2500).

    But I don’t understand why the cost of sales is calculated as below (on solutions page).

    110.000 + (6/12 * 50.000) – 12.500 + 51.000

    And also I don’t understand why NCI share is calculated as below:

    25% * (7000 – 1000) = 1500

    Please help me with an answer.

    Camelia

    October 11, 2015 at 7:43 pm #275902
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The answer to both of your problems is because H bought their share of S half way through the year.

    So the post-acquisition sales (in total) of S are only half of 50,000. Also, the pst acquisition profit of S is only half of 14,000.

    I hope that clears up your problem, but if not then please do ask again 🙂

    October 11, 2015 at 7:56 pm #275905
    racucamelia
    Member
    • Topics: 34
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    John.

    I still don’t get why is that the amount of 51.000 is added (and not 1000) and why the NCI is not calculated as 25% * 6000 – 25% * 1000.

    Thank you,

    Camelia

    October 12, 2015 at 7:01 am #275937
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The cost of sales should be 110,000 + (6/12 x 50,000) – 12,500 + 1,000 = 123,500
    (The 51,000 must be a typing mistake).

    The NCI is correct at 25% x (7,000 – 1,000).
    25% is their share; 7,000 is the post-acquisition profit in S (50% x 14,000); the 1,000 is the PURP that needs removing from S’s profit because it is S who had sold the goods to H.

    October 12, 2015 at 12:25 pm #276010
    racucamelia
    Member
    • Topics: 34
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    Thank you for the answer. Is very clear now. 🙂

    October 12, 2015 at 5:18 pm #276054
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54829
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    That’s great – I am very pleased 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
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