Confused about the answers

I am referring to Q2(a) December 2014 international variant of the paper, specifically the final part of the scenario to do with the loan:

A loan of $60 million was taken out on 1 August 2013 to help finance the acquisition. The loan carries an annual interest rate of 6%, with interest payments made annually in arrears. The loan will be repaid in 20 years at a premium of $5 million.

The answer states:
The loan is material, representing 13·3% of the Group’s total assets.
The loan taken out to finance the acquisition should be accounted for under IFRS 9
Financial Instruments. It should be initially measured at fair value, and classified according to whether it is subsequently measured at amortised cost or at fair
value. As the loan is not held for trading, it should be measured at amortised cost unless Group management decides to use the fair value option.

I only copied the part where I am confused. It states that it should be initially measured at FV, but isn’t financial liabilities suppose to be initially measured at ACM? I realised this seems more like an accounting question than an auditing one, but bear with this poor fellow.

Thanks for the help in advance.