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Comparative advantage between countries - Kaplan Study Text

Former userFormer user5y ago

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John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#1
This is a very odd example for Kaplan to have in their Study Text - nothing remotely similar has ever been asked in the Paper AFM (was P4) exam (and I cannot imagine ever would be asked!!) However have you typed out the whole question? I ask because there is no mention of either the costs or the selling prices of each product (both of which might be different in each country), and so I don't understand how you can say anything at all about the opportunity costs of each product.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#2
Now that you have added the line "Each country has the same resources available to it and they are split equally between the two products", it makes a bit more sense. I will try and explain in a different way. Just suppose the limited resource was just materials, and both countries have 10,000 kgs of materials which they use 5,000 kgs for each of the two products. Country A is therefore using 5,000/1,200 = 4.16 kg per unit of X, and 5,000/720 = 6.94 kgs per unit of Y. Country B is using 5,000/960 = 5.21 kg per unit of X, and 5,000/240 = 20.83 kgs per unit of Y. Clearly country A is using the material more efficiently for both products, and both countries are using less material to make X than to make Y. However if you look at the differences, B is massively less efficient making Y than making X. (A is also less efficient making Y than making X but the difference is much, much less). It would therefore make more sense for B to switch to producing only X, and for A to switch to only producing Y. There will be an overall benefit. I hope that helps, but as I wrote before I really do think that putting this in the study text is rather ridiculous - it is nothing like anything that is likely ever to be asked in Paper AFM. I wouldn't spend too much time on it :-)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor5y ago#3
You are welcome :-)
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