- This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by .
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Collars
Hello sir
In collars company limits its ability to enjoy favourable interest rate movements ,
e.g. company buys put option and it also buys call options at lowest possible premiums ,
my question is that this premium is payable no matter it is cap or floor ,
so why we add premium cost (net of cap and floor) in effective interest rate
shouldn`t we add both of these cost to the effective interest rate ???
If a company is borrowing money, they will buy a put option (and therefore pay a premium) in order to fix a maximum interest rate.
If they create a collar, then they do not buy a call option – they sell a call option and this limits the minimum interest rate. The only reason for doing this (and limited the minimum interest) is that by selling the call option they receive a premium and this therefore reduces the net premium cost for them.
Our lectures on this together with the separate note on collars (both in this website) should help you.
thank you Sir
your are Great!
You are welcome 🙂
