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- This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 1, 2016 at 9:58 pm #347029
Can you plz explain me how value of anatra year 5 onwards has arrived?
Since from yr5 it goes in perputoty why dont we multiply 2103 with (1/3%) simply?November 2, 2016 at 6:56 am #347049Multiplying by 1/0.03 would be discounting at 3%.
We need to discount by 9% and there is growth of 3%.
To discount an inflating perpetuity we use the dividend growth formula (it can be used for any inflating perpetuity). In the formula, Do = 2103; g = 0.03; and re = 0.09
However this would give the PV now if the first flow was in 1 years time. Here the first flow is in 5 years time which is 4 years later, so the answer from the formula gives a PV four years later – i.e. time 4. Therefore we need to discount for 4 years at 9% (either using the tables or using first principles as the examiners answer has done)
May 28, 2017 at 1:21 pm #388593Hi John,
In Cigno, why is 128m deducted to 5481 (when it should be added)?
128 is the value attributable to Cigno’s shareholders and 5481 is value created from tax savings. So, both are benefits for Cigno.May 28, 2017 at 6:08 pm #388637But it has been added!
As is written in the answer “Value attributable to Cigno Co’s shareholders from the acquisition of Anatra Co after taking into account the cash benefits of potential tax savings and redundancies = $5,609m”
5,609 = 5,481 + 128
May 29, 2017 at 6:46 am #388678I am sorry but I still don’t get it why 128 is deducted.
May 29, 2017 at 8:31 am #388725I don’t know why you say it has been deducted, because (as I wrote in my previous answer) it has not been deducted.
The total benefit is 5609 which is the total of the 128 benefit and the 5481 benefit (just as you wrote should be the case in your first question).
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