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Chmura Co (12/13)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Chmura Co (12/13)

  • This topic has 10 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 11 posts - 1 through 11 (of 11 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • September 16, 2015 at 6:20 pm #272196
    ogohuldar
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Tutor,

    I refer to Chmura Co (12/13), question 67 b(ii) of Bpp revision kit.

    The value of d1 = 0.589
    The value of d2 = 0.094

    From the Table, N(d1) should be 0.5 + 0.2224 = 0.7224
    N(d2) should be 0.5 + 0.0398 = 0.5398

    My question is how did they arrived at: N(d1) = 0.5 + 0.2220 = 0.7220 ?
    N(d2) = 0.5 + 0.0375 = 0.5375 ?

    Thank you.

    Ogo

    September 16, 2015 at 6:40 pm #272198
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54681
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because d1 is 0.589, they have apportioned linearly between the table figures for 0.58 and 0.59.
    There is no need to do this in the exam 🙂

    (same idea for d2)

    September 16, 2015 at 9:52 pm #272214
    ogohuldar
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    A lot of thanks John.

    So the answers:( N(d1) should be 0.5 + 0.2224 = 0.7224 and N(d2) should be 0.5 + 0.0398 = 0.5398) are equally acceptable in the exams?

    September 17, 2015 at 6:59 am #272233
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54681
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – no problem 🙂

    September 17, 2015 at 3:43 pm #272303
    ogohuldar
    Member
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 47
    • ☆☆

    Thanks John. I appreciate your help.

    September 18, 2015 at 8:06 am #272348
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54681
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    February 25, 2016 at 7:04 am #301947
    noorr
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆

    Dear sir they say in the ques ….a bal adj is required… if so y r we nt deducting residual value while calculating cap all? If they said res value is after tax den we dont deduct it but here it is after inflation… Does it mean wen res value is after tax or after inflation the calculation wud b 1250÷ 10 in dis particular ques?

    February 25, 2016 at 12:10 pm #302003
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54681
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If you go to the link “Revision and past questions” from the main Paper P4 page, then you will find a link to lectures working through the whole of this question, which I think will answer you 🙂

    February 25, 2016 at 2:31 pm #302035
    noorr
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆

    Seen n understood :)…i use a slightly different method though…..one more thing in dis….wt is the deal with the word res value after INFLATION? It doesnt hve any numerical implications right:)?

    May 17, 2017 at 7:21 am #386576
    parisnaaa
    Member
    • Topics: 32
    • Replies: 92
    • ☆☆

    Hi John,
    The question says that tax allowable is available, of 10% straight line basis on machinery of 1200 MP. A balancing adjustment is required in year 5 end , when the machinery will be sold for MP 500 million.

    In the answer,in year 5,
    tax allowable depreciation= (125)
    balancing allowance = (125)
    add back depreciation = 250
    total =0

    What I did was,
    less: book value at the end of year 5 less loss on machinery=(625-125) = (500)

    sale at the end of year 5 =500
    total =0

    is it okay if I do this in the exam?

    May 17, 2017 at 8:15 am #386602
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54681
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – that is perfectly OK 🙂

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Viewing 11 posts - 1 through 11 (of 11 total)
  • The topic ‘Chmura Co (12/13)’ is closed to new replies.

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