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Chawan June 2015

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Chawan June 2015

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by John Moffat.
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  • August 5, 2024 at 8:14 pm #709202
    rouquinblanc
    Participant
    • Topics: 19
    • Replies: 18
    • ☆

    This may well be a beginners question, but the EPS calculation seem to suggest: profit/(number of shares issues * par value of the share) however the EPS calculation is profit over number of shares in issue.

    My calculation for 20×2 160/300
    BPP is 160/300*0.5

    Many thanks

    August 6, 2024 at 2:56 pm #709219
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54831
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I do not know what BPP have done because I am away from home until tomorrow.

    However the correct calculation is as follows:

    There are 300/0.5 = 600 shares. So the EPS is 160/600 = 0.27

    (And this is also the same as the examiners answer 🙂 )

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