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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA TX-UK Exams › Chapter 5 Capital Allowance example 3 – John
Hi
I read earlier in notes that the excess to AIA should first go to the 8% column. But in this example… the excess to the $200k ($20k) goes to the 18% first. Why the difference please? Thanks – example John
No – I think you have misunderstood. The AIA is firstly allocated to special rate pool expenditure ahead of main pool expenditure. After the AIA has then be used any remaining special rate pool expenditure goes to the special rate pool column (8%) and any main pool expenditure is allocated to the main pool column (18%)