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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › Chapter 1 Lecture example 1 "Agne and Dace"
Hello dear tutor and thank you for the nice lecture!
What I cannot understand is the time apportion of 4000 post acq profit.
I thought that it’s enough to do the following in order to achieve post acq profit:
24000*10/12 =20 000, therefore 24 000 – 20 000= 4 000.
Why do one need too do: 4 000*10/12 and 4 000*2/12?
I was also thinking about that fact that is not mentioned in the question the the profit accrues evenly and that might be the reason but I am confused.
Thank you!!!
But it IS mentioned in the question! The profit recognised on the TNCA transfer is specifically identified as taking place in the post-acquisition period