Hello dear tutor and thank you for the nice lecture! What I cannot understand is the time apportion of 4000 post acq profit. I thought that it’s enough to do the following in order to achieve post acq profit: 24000*10/12 =20 000, therefore 24 000 – 20 000= 4 000. Why do one need too do: 4 000*10/12 and 4 000*2/12? I was also thinking about that fact that is not mentioned in the question the the profit accrues evenly and that might be the reason but I am confused.
But it IS mentioned in the question! The profit recognised on the TNCA transfer is specifically identified as taking place in the post-acquisition period