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CGU exam kit

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › CGU exam kit

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by MikeLittle.
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    Posts
  • November 25, 2017 at 12:20 pm #417940
    iyamu
    Participant
    • Topics: 286
    • Replies: 171
    • ☆☆☆

    I just want to know what they mean by no asset should be impaired below their recoverable amount.

    The following is to be used for the question 23 and 24.
    A division of a company has the following balances in its financial statements:
    Goodwill $700,000
    Plant $950,000
    Building $2,300,000
    Intangibles $800,000
    other assets $430,000
    Following a period losses, the recoverable amount of the division is deemed to be $4 million.
    A recent valuation of the building showed that the building has a market value of $2.5m. The other net assets are at their recoverable amount. The company uses cost model for valuing building, plant and equipment.

    23. To the nearest thousands, what is the balance on the building following the impairment review?
    Kaplan responses:

    Answer $2,300,000 , reason, $2.5million can not be chosen as the company uses the cost model. Also, in CGU, *no asset should be impaired below its recoverable amount*. The valuation of $2.5m is the property is not impaired and should remain $2.3million.

    Qstn, was the $2,5m valuation the recoverable amount? as against the entire division recoverable amt of $4million? Total impairment is $1.18 ($5.18 – $4). Obviously it was not impaired because the recoverable amount was higher than current carrying value of $2.3m and also because of the cost model used but what if we use revaluation model ?

    24. To the nearest thousands, what is the balance of plant following impairment review?

    total impairment is 1.18
    dr impairment exp 1.18
    cr CGU 1.18
    only plant and intangible asset were allocated impairment and also goodwill
    Goodwill writing off first nil remaining $480,000(1,180,000- 700,000)
    total c.a of plant and intangible asset was $1.75(950,000 + 800,000)

    plant impaired =$261,000
    c.a is $689,000
    Fine this is clear but i just to know why building and other asset was not included as this voice down to my curiosity of above* no asset should be impaired below is recoverable amount. Meaning no impairment should be allocated to these building and other asset*.

    Ignore every calculation as i do understand, but throw more simple explanation the above rule.

    Thanks

    November 26, 2017 at 11:23 pm #418269
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23333
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    “What if we use revaluation model?”

    So what? The rule states that no asset shall be reduced below its recoverable amount ie the higher of its value in use and it’s net sale able value and if no asset falls to be impaired, so be it

    Building is already below recoverable amount

    Other net assets are already stated at their recoverable amounts

    Only pland and intangibles are therefore available to be impaired and that is done in the ration of 950:800

    OK?

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