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MikeLittle.
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- May 9, 2018 at 1:54 pm #450891
From Kaplan Exam kit!!
A division of a company has the following balances in its FS :
Goodwill = $700,000
Plant = $950,000
Building = $2,300,000
Intangibles = $800,000
Other net asset = $430,000Following a period of losses, the recoverable amount of the division is deemed to be $4 million. A recent valuation of the building showed that the building has a market value of $2.5 million. The other net assets are at their recoverable amount. The company uses the cost model for valuing building , plant and equipment.
To the nearest thousand, what is the balance on plant following the impairment review ?
Solution :
Total cv = $5,180,000
Recoverable amount = $4 million
Impairment loss = $1,180,000Goodwill eliminated = 1,180,000 – 700,000 = $480,000
Pro rate plant and intangibles to allocate impairment to plant only since other net asset are at their recoverable figure .
950,000+800,000 = $1750,000
Plant = 950,000/1,750,000 = 261,000
Carrying amount = 950,000 – 261,000 = $689,000My question, why was the building excluded from the total figure when pro rated is used in allocating the impairment loss across plant , building and intangible assets ?
That is, 950,000 + 800,000 + 2,300,000 = $4,050,000. Then we can apply pro rate to calculate each balances
I was thinking it was part of the Cash generating unit which was added together to get $5,180,000.
May 9, 2018 at 4:46 pm #450903“My question, why was the building excluded from the total figure when pro rated is used in allocating the impairment loss across plant , building and intangible assets ?”
Because, if we include the building in the pro rata calculation, it means that we shall be reducing it below its recoverable amount (the higher of value in use compared with net selling price) … and you know already that we are not allowed to do that!
OK?
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