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CGT – Shares

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA TX-UK Exams › CGT – Shares

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by Tax Tutor.
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  • May 10, 2016 at 12:05 am #314349
    tigress
    Member
    • Topics: 13
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Hi,

    Example: Ben bought 200,000 ordinary shares in XYZ plc, for £120,000 and gifts his wife 25,000 shares, at the time of gift,the MV is £2. He also gifts his daughter 15,000 shares, the MV is also £2 at that time.

    I understand the MV is used for consideration because they are connected persons, but when calculating the cost of the 15,000 shares gifted to daughter, would that be (15,000/200,000) x £120,000 or (15,000/175,000) x £120,000?

    Thanks.

    May 15, 2016 at 5:08 pm #315195
    Tax Tutor
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3965
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Transfers between spouses are on a no gain no loss basis which means that the gift to his wife would be at COST not at OMV.
    The gift to the daughter would be at OMV creating a chargeable gain for Ben and daughter would acquire at a base cost equal to the OMV of the shares

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