Hi,
Example: Ben bought 200,000 ordinary shares in XYZ plc, for £120,000 and gifts his wife 25,000 shares, at the time of gift,the MV is £2. He also gifts his daughter 15,000 shares, the MV is also £2 at that time.
I understand the MV is used for consideration because they are connected persons, but when calculating the cost of the 15,000 shares gifted to daughter, would that be (15,000/200,000) x £120,000 or (15,000/175,000) x £120,000?
Thanks.
Ask the Tutor ACCA TX-UK
CGT - Shares
Transfers between spouses are on a no gain no loss basis which means that the gift to his wife would be at COST not at OMV.
The gift to the daughter would be at OMV creating a chargeable gain for Ben and daughter would acquire at a base cost equal to the OMV of the shares
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