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- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by Ken Garrett.
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- November 4, 2019 at 7:17 pm #551558
A UK based company is considering an investment of GB£1,00,0000 in a project in the USA it is
anticipated that the following cash flows will arise from this project.
The cash flows will be either USD 4,00,000 with a probability of 40% or USD 7,00,000 with a
with a probability of 60% for each of the next three years remitted to the UK at the end of each year
GB £5,54,047
GB £2,87,639
GB £3,91,640
GB £ (1,11,973)
The CEO of HJ wishes to evaluate an investment using the certainty equivalent basis. The project involves
an initial outflow of D$2m, There will be a single inflow in exactly one year after which the project will be
concluded.
The CEO believes that the expected value of the inflow from this project is D$5m. He believe that the most
likely inflow will be D$4.2m. He would be prepared to accept a guranteed sum of D$3.5m as an alternative
The cost of capital for this project is 8% and the risk-free rate is 3%. The one year discount factors for
those rates are 0.926 and 0.971 respectively
What is the net present value of this project on the certainly equivalent basis ?November 5, 2019 at 12:35 am #551568I don’t answer whole questions like this. If there is a specific part of your model answer you don’t understand, I will try to help, but we do not operate an answer factory.
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