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cash flows

DDan11y ago
sir could u please explain again why do we always add the depreciation to the operating activities?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#1
In the statement of cash flows, we are trying to show the cash receipts and payments. Depreciation is not a cash flow - there is no cash payment of that amount. So we 'remove' it from the profit figure. Since it was an expense, if we remove it then the figure is higher - we add it to the profit. It will help you to watch the free lectures on Statements of cash flows.
DDan11y ago#2
sir could pls help with another question Scents had the following balances in its statement of financial positions as at 30 September 2004 and 2005: Loan interest accrual: 20X4- $5000 20X5- $3000 Approved ordinary dividends: 20X4- $20,000 20X5- $25,000 10% Loan Notes: 20X4- $100,000 20X5- $100,000 Ordinary share capital: 20X4- $150,000 20X5- $150,000 8% Preference share capital: 2004- $50,000 20X5- $50,000 a) How much will appear in the statement of cash flows for the year ended 30 September 2005 for the loan interest and preference dividend paid? b) How much will appear in the statement of cash flows for the year ended 30 September 2005 for the ordinary dividend paid?
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#3
Say which part of the answer is giving you a problem, and then I will try and help. (and have you watched the lectures on Statements of cash flows, or not?)
DDan11y ago#4
sir i do not understand how to do question A and B. Please help me sir. I've watched the the cash flows videos, but I'm still having a hard time in cash flows. :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#5
But surely there is an answer in the same book as you found the question? For the loan interest,the expense for the year is 10% x 100,000 = 10,000. However to get the cash paid it needed adjusting for the accruals and so the acute payment of interest is 10,000 - 5,000 + 3,000 = 8,000 For the preference dividend, the expense for the year is 8% x 50,000 = 4,000. There is no mention of any accruals for preference dividend, and so the cash paid is 4,000. For the ordinary dividend, you really need more information to be sure how much was paid. However if there is no more information then you would assume that the dividend for 20X4 was paid in 20X5.
DDan11y ago#6
sir for question B the payment for the ordinary payments is $20,000.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#7
Yes - that is what I replied. With no other information you would assume that the 2004 dividend was paid during 2005.
DDan11y ago#8
ok thank u so much sir :) Sir, another question, what is the meaning of operating profit?
DDan11y ago#9
sir this is the continuous question related to operating profit which I don't understand how to do to it. Baldrick has the following balances in its statement of financial position as at 30 June 2004 and 30 June 2005: Taxation payable: 30 June 2005- $600 30 june 2004- $400 Dividend: 30 June 2005- $3300 30 June 2004- $2500 8% Loan Notes: 30 June 2005- $50,000 30 June 2004- $40,000 Accumulated Profits: 30 June 2005- $65,500 30 June 2004- $45,500 In the year ended 30 June 2005 taxation of $550 was paid. The additional loan notes were issued on 30 June 2005.
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#10
You have not said what the question is requiring. (Have you watched the lectures on Statement of cash flows?)
DDan11y ago#11
Oh sorry sir :) What is the operating profit of Baldrick for the year ended 30 June 2005? Yes sir, I have watched the lectures, there are just some questions which confuse me. :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#12
The increase in the accumulated profits is equal to the operating profit less the tax charge for the year less the loan interest for the year and less the dividends for the year. You can calculate the tax charge because you know what was owing at the start and end of the year, and you know how much was paid. The loan interest was 8% of 40,000 (because the extra ones were only issued at the end of the year. The dividend is 2500. (Again, do you not have answers in the same book as the questions? :-) )
DDan11y ago#13
Yes sir :) Actually the dividend is 3300 :)
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor11y ago#14
Yes - it is working backwards :-)
KKaur1y ago#15
I still don't understand why is it 20000
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor1y ago#16
I assume you are referring to the dividend. As I wrote in an earlier reply, if there is no other information we must assume that the 20X4 dividend is paid in 20X5.
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