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John Moffat.
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- November 11, 2014 at 3:07 pm #209135
Sir please make it clear which beta is used in this formula. I know its asset beta ie ba but in one of the question fly4000 they have found be and put it in this formula I know you might not have this question but please clear this confusion.Thanks
November 12, 2014 at 11:53 am #209306It would help if you said which formula!! There are two formulae relating to betas on the formula sheet.
If you are talking about the basic CAPM formula, then the shareholders required return (and cost of equity) is always calculated using the equity beta.
If you are taking about the asset beta formula, then if we know the equity beta we can calculate the asset beta, and vice versa.
November 12, 2014 at 1:13 pm #209350Sir I am taking about basic CAPM.
In which we use market return n risk free return.Please have a look at question 12/02 Intergrand for findi d discount rate firstly we found Ba and assuming its debt free Ba came out to be.749 then in basic Capm they are putting as 4+(11-4).749.
Then why are they putting asset beta here.
Am i right that equity beta means Be
And asset beta means Ba please make tjis clear i m really getting confuse. Please have a look at this question. ThanksNovember 12, 2014 at 1:16 pm #209351I remember this question. Its in bpp revision kit I guess. Other questions use equity bets to come to ke but this question used asset beta.
November 12, 2014 at 5:22 pm #209414Because the are calculating the cost of equity without gearing (it is an APV question and with APV the base case NPV is calculated as though it were all equity financed – the effect of the gearing is dealt with separately).
If it is all equity financed then the equity beta equals the asset beta (and the answer actually said this immediately below the calculation).
November 12, 2014 at 9:35 pm #209490Thank you so much sir. I dont know without you what student like me would have done,who cannt afford tuition. Thanks
November 13, 2014 at 9:42 am #209546You are welcome 🙂
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