Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › capital investment apprailsal
- This topic has 4 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
- AuthorPosts
- February 9, 2018 at 6:45 pm #436143
Able ltd is considering a new project for which the following information is available
Initial cost – $300000
Expected life – 5 years
Estimated scrap Value – $20000
Additional revenue from the project – $120000 per year
Incremental costs of the project – 30000 per year
Cost of capital – 10 %Calculate the Net Present Value of the project (to the nearest $)
February 10, 2018 at 8:19 am #436182There is an outflow of 300,000 at time 0.
There is an inflow of 120,000 – 30,000 = 90,000 a year for 5 years, so discount this by using the 5 year annuity discount factor at 10%.
There is an inflow of 20,000 in 5 years time, so discount this using the normal 5 year present value factor.
Have you watched my free lectures on this? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper F2 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.
February 10, 2018 at 1:29 pm #43621490000 discounted at 10% annuity for 5 years = 341190
20000 discounted at 10% normal present value= = 12420
Therefore NPV= 341190 + 12420
= 353610
Is it correct ? Or we also need to add 300000 (initial investment) ?February 10, 2018 at 5:03 pm #436242“IRR and NVP will give same accept or reject investment decisions when cash flows are conventional.
What is meant by the above statement ?
And why IRR and NVP will not give same decisions when cash flows are not conventional?
I dont understand what is conventional and unconventional cash flow?February 10, 2018 at 5:09 pm #436248You subtract the initial investment to get the NPV – it is an outflow!!
Otherwise it seems correct. Have you watched the free lectures?
- AuthorPosts
- The topic ‘capital investment apprailsal’ is closed to new replies.