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Capital budgeting

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Capital budgeting

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 20, 2022 at 6:46 pm #663780
    Sukuna
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    Hi

    Able Ltd is considering a new project, for with the following information is available:

    Initial cost – $300,000
    Expected life – 5years
    Estimated scrap value – $20,000
    Addition revenue from the project – $120,000 per year
    Incremental costs of the project – $30,000 per year
    Cost of capital – 10%

    Calculate the Net Present Value of the project (to the nearest $)

    My answer: 53,520

    120,000-30,000= cash inflow per year.

    -300000
    90000 0.909 81810
    90000 0.826 74340
    90000 0.751 67590
    90000 0.683 61470
    90000 0.621 55890
    20000 0.621 12420
    53520
    but the answer was 53,610 can you explain where did I make a mistake?

    b) Calculate the Accounting Rate of Return of the project (to the nearest %)

    this question also relates to the same case but I didn’t get the right answer here also. (my answer was 16.4 but the right one is 21)

    thanks in advance

    August 21, 2022 at 10:07 am #663838
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    (a) the difference is simply rounding (using individual discount factors obviously gives a slightly different answer than if you had used annuity factors). In the real exam rounding will not be a problem because you would be asked (for example) to give an answer to the nearest $1,000.

    (b) see the following post 🙂
    https://opentuition.com/topic/mock-exam-question-9/

    August 22, 2022 at 8:58 am #663895
    Sukuna
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    can you explain why you added 20,000? (The average investment = (300,000 + 20,000) / 2 = 160,000)

    I guess 20,000 is scrap value, and thus it’s included in 300,000 why are we adding it again?

    I thought 300,000 should be divided by 2…. can you explain the concept of this calculation?

    August 22, 2022 at 10:54 am #663914
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If it is 300,000 at the start and only 20,000 at the end , then on average it is (300,000 + 20,000)/2

    The average would only be 300,000/2 if the value at the end was zero. Here the value at the end is higher and the average is therefore higher.

    August 23, 2022 at 8:49 am #664005
    Sukuna
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    Now I see. Thank you so much, sir.

    August 23, 2022 at 11:41 am #664034
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome.

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • The topic ‘Capital budgeting’ is closed to new replies.

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