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Capital Budgeting

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Capital Budgeting

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 7, 2020 at 2:34 pm #594371
    applessauce
    Member
    • Topics: 85
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    An investor plans to invest $5,000 over the next five years. The first amount of $1,000 will be
    invested today followed by four further amounts of $1,000 each at one-year intervals. The
    investments will earn 8% interest per year.
    What will the investment be worth at the end of the fifth year (to the nearest $)?

    Sir this question was based on another person’s question that was posted awhile ago

    Why can’t you use this method when figuring out the answer

    =Annual cashflow*Annuity factor
    =1000*3.
    =$3993

    And then to convert it into present values

    =Future Value *1/(1+r)^n
    =3993* 1/(1+8/100)^5
    =$2717

    November 8, 2020 at 9:58 am #594404
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The annuity factor is not 3.

    Also, the question does not ask for the present value. It asks for the terminal value – the value at the end of 5 years.

    Do watch my free lectures on this.

    November 9, 2020 at 9:13 am #594501
    applessauce
    Member
    • Topics: 85
    • Replies: 65
    • ☆☆

    Wait I’m sorry, there was mistake in typing the number

    I meant to say that the discount rate under the annuity factor for 8% was 3.993 for 5 years
    Why is that figure wrong?

    November 9, 2020 at 2:31 pm #594523
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54833
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You did not read the whole of my reply.

    You have calculated the present value, but the question asks for the terminal value.

  • Author
    Posts
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