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Capital budgeting

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Capital budgeting

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 24, 2018 at 10:55 pm #492651
    reem1589
    Participant
    • Topics: 61
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    could you please explain how to attempt this question. I tried the method you explained in the lecture but I just do not seem to be getting the right answer. the answer is $19174.

    A particular project requires an initial cash outflow of $60,000. 2 years from now, there will be a cash inflow of $20,000, with an inflow of the same amount each year after that for 5 years.
    What is the NPV of the project if the discount rate is 10% (to the nearest whole number)?

    December 25, 2018 at 11:42 am #492679
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The flows are from time 2 to time 6.

    So take the annuity factor for 6 years and subtract the factor for 1 year, so as to be left with the factor for years 2 to 6.

    Alternatively you can take the annuity factor for 5 years (because there are 5 years of flows) and multiply by the 1 year factor to discount an extra year (because the annuity starts 1 year later – at time 2 instead of at time 1).

    The two answers will be slightly different, because of rounding in the tables. However in the exam they never ask to the nearest $ (more like to the nearest $100) so that rounding is not a problem 🙂

    December 25, 2018 at 1:33 pm #492694
    reem1589
    Participant
    • Topics: 61
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    I tried both the methods you have recommended but still do not get the NPV of $19174.
    Could you please provide me with the workings.

    December 26, 2018 at 10:07 am #493745
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Sorry, have read the question again, the cash flows are from years 2 to 7. (There are 6 years of flows – one in 2 years time and then another 5 years).

    The first method gives a discount factor of 4.868 – 0.909 = 3.959
    Therefore the PV of the inflows is 20,000 x 3.959 = 79,180.
    Therefore the NPV is 19,180.

    The second method is 20,000 x 4.355 x 0.909 = 79,174
    Therefore the NPV is 19,174

    As I wrote before, the difference is just due to rounding in the tables and will not be relevant in the exam.

    December 26, 2018 at 4:53 pm #495751
    reem1589
    Participant
    • Topics: 61
    • Replies: 17
    • ☆☆

    thank you for the clarification.

    December 27, 2018 at 10:26 am #499029
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • The topic ‘Capital budgeting’ is closed to new replies.

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