Dear sir,
Sorry this may be a stupid question but I really couldnt figure out why. In the following question, the initial capital balance seems to be 25 mln, instead of (25-initial deposit 2 = 23). Can you look into this thank you very much ? (as I thought the capital balance on both the asset and liability side should both = cash price - initial deposit. )
"On 1 April 20x1, Fresco acquired an item of plant under a finance lease agreement that had an implicit finance cost of 10% per annum. The lease payments in the trial balance represent an initial deposit of $2million paid on 1 April 20x1 and the first annual rental of $6min paid on 31 Mar 20x2. The lease agreement requires further annual payments of $6mln on 31 Mar each year for the next four years. Had the plant not been leased it would have cost $25 million to purchase for cash.
The provided answer has the balance on 1 April 20x1 for the lease asset at 25,000, and also the depreciation expenses is 25/5 = 5k.
The trial balance for the relevant entries are:
PP&E - at cost debit balance of 48000
Accumulated depreciation of PP&E at 1 April 20x1 credit balance of 33500
Lease payments debit balance of 8000
regards
Lm
Ask the Tutor ACCA FR
capital balance for leased asset
Hi Lm
The asset cost and the lease liability ARE the same as at the date of signing the lease - they are both $25M
So Dr TNCA $25m, Cr Obligations account $25
Now pay the $2m deposit
Dr Obligations account $2m, Cr Cash $2m
Now account for the first year's interest
Dr Finance charges $2.3m, Cr Obligations account $2.3m
And now pay the first instalment
Dr Obligations account $6m, Cr Cash $6m
At no time, other than on initial acquisition have we touched the asset account so your idea that the asset account should equal the obligation account is incorrect
Now calculate depreciation on the $25m asset = $5m depreciation charge for the year
OK?
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