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- This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 13 years ago by kachaloo.
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- December 7, 2010 at 7:52 pm #46745
Hi
You have said to be able to suggest a suitable price based on div val models and per model valuations – is there a rule of thumb in order to obtain a decision? or is it enough to calculate the various methods – I don’t know how to arrive at the decision?December 7, 2010 at 8:12 pm #73310AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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When a question is ask .. the DVM can be used when you see that the requirement is available . Example :
to use DVM you must have your ;Do – current dividend
G- growth
Ke- cost of equity
and your Number of sharethis is used mostly when you want to know if this new project or acquisition would benefit the share holders … that is if the previous price would gain increase . That is when we use the DVM( Dividend valuation model)
When you use PE ratio .. you are considering the project in the benefit of the company as a whole ….. that is to see if the company would enjoy from the new investment (Note :this is not to the benefit of the share holders but to the company as a whole) this what what we call value the whole company. this is normally use
when you have the PE ratio and the earning per share
December 7, 2010 at 10:54 pm #73311Sorry, I should re-phrase question, I realise how to calc the valuation methods, but how do you decide suitable price to suggest?
December 8, 2010 at 1:59 am #73312If it’s in a takeover situation the acquiring company can (in theory) offer a price per share up to the value indicated and still be creating value for it’s shareholders. Be prepared to comment on EMH in relation to these methods and remember according to the syllabus that DCF methods are always considered superior because of the flaws in both DGM and PE models.
December 8, 2010 at 12:03 pm #73313Stripping Asset = Asset Bassis (NRV)
Keeping Asset = Asset Bassis (Replacement Cost)Minority stake & shareholder point of view = DVM
Majority Stake = Earning Based–> DCFRemember that bit: there is no right answer for this. Valuation is not science it is art 🙂
hope this help it narrow down a bit for you..
December 8, 2010 at 12:30 pm #73314Thanks – what is the diff between n realisable value and n replacement cost
December 8, 2010 at 12:32 pm #73315Is earnings based PER method – how do we incorp DCF?
December 8, 2010 at 12:55 pm #73316🙂 looks like you have not studied the text book… doing revision only…;)
There are FOUR valution methods
1)Asset Based => Book Value – NRV – Replacement cost
2)DVM = Po=Do(1+g)/Ke-g
3)PER= MV= Profit After TAX x PEratio
4)PV of free cash flow = [Operating Cashflows-Tax+Tax relief-Capital Exp] using WACC as DCF rate [find real rate using fisher fomula (r=(1+m)/(1+i)-1)
then deduct the Debt = MVNo 4 is the superior method to be used.
anyway NRV = minimum market value
Replacement cost= Maximum market value (incorporating income generated by the asset)You do not do DCF use when using PER
DCF is used for PV of current cash flow – Debt
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