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Business valuation f9 Kaplan section b qn 20b and c

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Business valuation f9 Kaplan section b qn 20b and c

  • This topic has 8 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 10 months ago by LMR1006.
Viewing 9 posts - 1 through 9 (of 9 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 24, 2020 at 7:55 pm #581807
    nk16
    Participant
    • Topics: 71
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    BUSINESS VALUATIONS
    20 Kevin Dutton is an investor who specialises in buying corporate debt at discounted values
    and aims to make gains either by selling bonds at a higher value later or by receiving
    redemption payments. Kevin is currently evaluating the following investments:
    Last year Kevin bought $1m nominal value of unquoted 5% bonds in Company A at a price
    of $500,000. The bonds are to be redeemed at par in 5 years’ time but Company A is
    showing signs of financial distress. To value the bonds Kevin has estimated that a return of
    30% is appropriate here to compensate for the risks of non?payment.
    Company B, a forestry company, is looking to raise $5 million through the issue of 6 year
    deep discounted zero coupon bonds. The issue price has been set at a 40% discount. Kevin
    may invest but is looking for a return of 10% per annum to do so.
    Kevin also owns fixed rate bonds in Company C. These bonds are traded on major bond
    markets. Kevin is thinking of selling them now as he believes that interest rates are going to
    increase shortly resulting in a drop in the bond price.
    All three companies mentioned pay tax at 25%.

    (b)   Calculate the gross redemption yield on the deep discounted bonds. Give your
    answer as a percentage to 1 dp.  
    %

    I don’t know how to calculate this

    August 25, 2020 at 6:58 am #581840
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The bonds are zero coupon and so pay no interest.

    They are issued at a discount of 40%, so for an outflow at time 0 of $60, the investor will receive an inflow of $100 in 6 years time.

    The gross redemption yield is, as usual, the IRR of these flows.

    August 25, 2020 at 9:34 am #581874
    nk16
    Participant
    • Topics: 71
    • Replies: 39
    • ☆☆

    How did u get 60$ at time 0 and how the inflow is 100…plz explain full calculation coz I didn’t understand

    August 25, 2020 at 12:58 pm #581907
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54696
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Have you not watched my free lectures on this? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FM (it is not called F9 now) and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.

    Bonds are issued in units with a nominal/par value of $100.

    If they issued at a discount of 40% then investors will pay 100 – (40% x 100) = $60.

    They will be redeemed at par in 6 years time, so in 6 years time the investors will be repaid $100.

    August 25, 2023 at 9:03 am #690674
    4956122zaryab
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    but how too calculate redemption yield %

    August 25, 2023 at 6:25 pm #690708
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1508
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    As we have said above:

    The gross redemption yield on the deep discounted bonds can be calculated as the internal rate of return (IRR) of the cash flows associated with the bond.

    Have you not watched my free lectures on this? The lectures are a complete free course for Paper FM (it is not called F9 now) and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.

    August 25, 2023 at 9:35 pm #690713
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1508
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    MV Debt (x) value PV = 60

    Period 1 – 6 Int (1-t) this is zero

    Redemption 100

    Find were the NPV of cashflows = 0

    As there is no interest on the bonds

    The IRR of these two figures is the return.

    So F = P (1+r) ^ n

    So 100 = (60) * (1+r) ^ 6

    100 / 60 ^ (1/6) = 1+r

    1.089 = 1+r
    r = 8.9%

    or alternatively look at PV table as no annuity interest

    so look along the 6 year row which PV factor is 1:0.6 or 100=60

    10% look at 6 years

    100 * 0.564 = 56.40 that has to equal 60 which it doesn’t

    at 8% look at 6 years

    100 * 0.630= 63 which is over 60

    at 9’% look at 6 years

    100 * 0.596 = 59.6 which is nearly 60

    so it’s nearly 9%

    September 3, 2024 at 10:30 am #710696
    hirayasmin
    Participant
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    can u plz tell me how to find this ques whole third part
    this is the third part ques
    Calculate the minimum discount required so the deep discounted bonds give a return over 10%. Give your answer to the nearest whole percent.
    ans is fourty four percent idk how to do it

    September 3, 2024 at 12:42 pm #710697
    LMR1006
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1508
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    To calc the disc req’d to give 10% return:

    You calculate the PV of future c f/low at 10%
    As the bonds pay no interest, the only c/flow to consider is the redemption which it says $100 in 6 yrs

    So you take $100 * (pv of 6 yrs @ 10%) 0.564 = $56.40

    This shows the discount to be $43.60 (diff $100 – $56.40) which is 44%

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