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Business valuation

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Business valuation

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 22, 2018 at 6:37 pm #453433
    mdhashim
    Member
    • Topics: 39
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Hello there… could you please help me to get the logic behind this question
    Cant co has a cost of equity of 10% and has forecast it’s future dividend as follows
    Current year :no dividend
    Year 1 :no dividend
    Year 2:0.25 per share
    Year 3: 0.50 per share and increasing by 3% per year in subsequent years
    The answer is 6.11per share please help me out with this

    May 23, 2018 at 7:48 am #453493
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54806
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The MV of a share is the PV of the future expected dividends discounted at the shareholders required rate of return.

    You need to discount the 0.25 at time 2 for 2 years at 10%, and then add on the PV of the growing dividends (using the dividend valuation formula but then discounting for 2 more years because the dividends start at time 3 instead of at time 1 – i.e 2 years later).

    I work through a very similar example in my lectures on the valuation of securities.

    The lectures are a complete free course for Paper F9 and cover everything needed to be able to pass the exam well.

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    Posts
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  • The topic ‘Business valuation’ is closed to new replies.

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