Examiner ‘s report F9 March 2016 has the following question:
Cant Co has a cost of equity of 10% and has forecast its future dividends as follows:
Current year: No dividend
Year 1: No dividend
Year 2 :$0.25 per share
Year 3: $0.5 per share and increasing by 3% per year in subsequent years
What is the current share price of Cant Co using the dividend valuation model?
A. $7.35
B. $5.57
C. $6.11
D. $6.28
The model answer give the share price = (0.826*0.5)/(0.1-0.03)+0.826*0.25=$6.11 per share, which is C.
I did it by the following method (that Sir John explained to someone in 2017) is it ok?
If I told you that we had just paid a dividend of 0.50, then you would get the PV now by 0.50(1.03)/(0.10-0.03) = 7.357 this would be the PV of dividends from time 1 onwards.
Now jump forward 3 years, and suppose again we have just paid a dividend of 0.50. If we then use the formula we would still get 7.357 as the PV in 3 years time, and this would be the PV for dividends from time 4 onwards.
So now you have a dividend of 0.25 in 2 years time, a dividend of 0.50 in 3 years time, and a PV of the dividends from 4 years onwards as 7.357 in 3 years time.
The PV of these is (0.25 x 0.826) + (0.50 x 0.751) + (7.357 x 0.751) = $6.11)
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One more question, if sir John Moffat’s method is correct can I follow that instead of examiner’s?
Both methods are fine
Go with John’s he’s brilliant at explaining
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