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Bus Val DGM

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Bus Val DGM

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by IAW3005.
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  • October 30, 2023 at 12:41 pm #694185
    whydoyoucare
    Participant
    • Topics: 50
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    Examiner ‘s report F9 March 2016 has the following question:
    Cant Co has a cost of equity of 10% and has forecast its future dividends as follows:

    Current year: No dividend
    Year 1: No dividend
    Year 2 :$0.25 per share
    Year 3: $0.5 per share and increasing by 3% per year in subsequent years
    What is the current share price of Cant Co using the dividend valuation model?
    A. $7.35
    B. $5.57
    C. $6.11
    D. $6.28
    The model answer give the share price = (0.826*0.5)/(0.1-0.03)+0.826*0.25=$6.11 per share, which is C.

    I did it by the following method (that Sir John explained to someone in 2017) is it ok?
    If I told you that we had just paid a dividend of 0.50, then you would get the PV now by 0.50(1.03)/(0.10-0.03) = 7.357 this would be the PV of dividends from time 1 onwards.
    Now jump forward 3 years, and suppose again we have just paid a dividend of 0.50. If we then use the formula we would still get 7.357 as the PV in 3 years time, and this would be the PV for dividends from time 4 onwards.
    So now you have a dividend of 0.25 in 2 years time, a dividend of 0.50 in 3 years time, and a PV of the dividends from 4 years onwards as 7.357 in 3 years time.
    The PV of these is (0.25 x 0.826) + (0.50 x 0.751) + (7.357 x 0.751) = $6.11)

    October 30, 2023 at 12:49 pm #694186
    whydoyoucare
    Participant
    • Topics: 50
    • Replies: 46
    • ☆☆

    One more question, if sir John Moffat’s method is correct can I follow that instead of examiner’s?

    October 30, 2023 at 8:50 pm #694207
    IAW3005
    Moderator
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1604
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Both methods are fine
    Go with John’s he’s brilliant at explaining

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