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Buryecs co mar/june 2017

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Buryecs co mar/june 2017

  • This topic has 2 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 6, 2020 at 11:47 pm #556987
    osamasyed123
    Participant
    • Topics: 51
    • Replies: 42
    • ☆☆

    Hi sir
    In the b part 1 of the question are mentioned fixed borroiwng rates and bank plus rates
    In the examples in the course notes you demonstrated to subtract the difference of the 2 fixed and borroiwng
    As in this question 5.8%-4% and BANK 0.6%-0.4%
    1.8-0.2 = 1.6% /2 and B. Co would get 60% of benefit in total so the resultant should be =0.96
    But in the mark scheme answer it is 1.2
    Because they have added the 2 differneces of bank rates and fixed rates
    Csn you please explain why?

    January 6, 2020 at 11:53 pm #556988
    osamasyed123
    Participant
    • Topics: 51
    • Replies: 42
    • ☆☆

    Sorry sir
    I got it i think so
    In your examples if we do by the mark scheme way
    We get the transfer amount directly so it is easy we just have to decide on tbe opposite borrowings of each company and interest payments but the transfer amount is directly calculated
    Every question is so hard unlike f9 in where there were same pattern questions

    January 7, 2020 at 6:53 am #556997
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are correct.

    (And yes – Paper AFM is a lot harder than Paper FM because it is much more testing understanding and application rather than just learning rules.)

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Viewing 3 posts - 1 through 3 (of 3 total)
  • The topic ‘Buryecs co mar/june 2017’ is closed to new replies.

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