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Burcolene

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Burcolene

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 11, 2017 at 8:17 am #366014
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    Good morning!

    I am unable to understand why do we take into account the share options in the first place when valuing the co.

    this is a payment that the company has to make and is like any other ‘payable’..no?

    regards

    January 11, 2017 at 11:26 am #366037
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54707
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This is more of a P2 problem – there will not be a payment. If the options are exercised then effectively the company will be issuing shares at a cheap price, which will reduce the market value of the company.

    January 11, 2017 at 11:43 am #366042
    mansoor
    Participant
    • Topics: 424
    • Replies: 542
    • ☆☆☆☆

    thank u….and one last question on this for part (b)

    the answer says its a type III acquisition. but both businesses are the same however, since the buyout will be leveraged .. there shd only be financial risk …. the business risk shd not change..no?

    January 11, 2017 at 7:52 pm #366094
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54707
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The different types (type 1, type 2 and type 3) are no longer examinable.

  • Author
    Posts
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