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Budgeting

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Budgeting

  • This topic has 9 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • February 14, 2016 at 5:01 pm #300440
    Afrina
    Member
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    Hi Sir,

    Hope ur fine.

    I hv a problem regarding to budgeting.

    QT Co. manufactures a single product and an extract from their flexed budget for production costs is as follows.

    Activity level: 80%

    Direct material $ 2400
    Labour $ 2120
    Production Overheads $ 4060
    Total $ 8580

    Activity level 90%

    Direct materials $ 2700
    Labour $ 2160
    Production Overheads $ 4080
    Total $ 8940

    What would the total production cost allowance be in a budget flexed at the 83% level of activity? (to the nearest $)

    A. $ 6266
    B. $6888
    C. $ 8586
    D. $ 8688

    Okay, here’s where my problem began.

    Labour & production overhead:

    At 90%, activity $6240
    At 80%, activity $6180
    Change 10%, activity $60

    From where they got $ 6240 & $ 6180??

    Then they got $6 as VC per 1% of activity, which i understood the calculation, however, they again did the calculation:

    substituting in 80% activity:

    Fixed cost of labour & production overhead = $6180 – (80 x $6) = $5700.

    So does this mean that Activity level of 80% was fixed budget or flexed budget that we have to use to identify the actual variance?

    It would be very helpful if u’d help me over here with this type of question.

    Thanks in advance & hope to hear from you soon.

    February 15, 2016 at 8:02 am #300478
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54664
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    They have simply used the high low technique in order to calculate the variable and the fixed costs.

    You can spot immediately that materials are a completely variable cost.
    However it should also be immediately clear that both labour and overheads are semi-variable and therefore they have used the high low technique on the two together.

    6180 is the total of labour and overheads at the 80% level, and 6240 is the total of the two at the 90% level.

    Our free lectures will help you if you are not sure about how to use the high-low technique.

    February 15, 2016 at 3:18 pm #300581
    Afrina
    Member
    • Topics: 26
    • Replies: 37
    • ☆☆

    I get it now.

    thx 4 d help of highlighting the key technique!

    🙂

    February 15, 2016 at 4:20 pm #300586
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54664
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

    April 18, 2018 at 3:10 am #447887
    dmorgan246
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Hi Sir,

    I need further assistance following on from the above question:

    Direct material cost per 1% = $30.

    This info is taken from the solution to the above problem. Can you guide me at to how the $30 was derived?

    Cheers

    April 18, 2018 at 3:11 am #447888
    dmorgan246
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    The $30 is relevant to solving the flexed budget allowance…

    April 18, 2018 at 8:37 am #447920
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54664
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If 80% costs $2,400, then 1% is $2,400/80 = $30.

    (Similarly, since 90% costs $2,700, then 1% is $2,700/90 = $30)

    April 18, 2018 at 12:28 pm #447973
    dmorgan246
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    Thanks a lot Sir.

    April 18, 2018 at 12:31 pm #447974
    dmorgan246
    Member
    • Topics: 5
    • Replies: 15
    • ☆

    I made the error of $2400/.8 instead of 80. Thanks again.

    April 18, 2018 at 3:51 pm #448005
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54664
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 10 posts - 1 through 10 (of 10 total)
  • The topic ‘Budgeting’ is closed to new replies.

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