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BRT co(6/11)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › BRT co(6/11)

  • This topic has 7 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • May 2, 2013 at 8:56 am #124243
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    Here all elements ie selling price,var costs,fixed costs etc have the same level of inflation so cant we use the nominal rate for all of them without doing any inflating to all of the elements?

    May 2, 2013 at 2:37 pm #124341
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54717
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t know which question you mean – there was no question called BRT in the June 2011 exam. (The only investment appraisal question says to ignore inflation!).

    In general, if all flows have the same level of inflation then you can use the real rate (not the nominal rate – you use the nominal (actual) rate on the nominal (actual) cash flows; or you can use the real rate on the current price flows ignoring inflation). I cannot actually remember a real exam question with inflation where all of the flows had the same rate of inflation.

    However, one problem is that the real rate is unlikely to come to an exact percentage and so you would really need to calculate the discount factors yourself rather than be able to use the discount tables.

    May 2, 2013 at 5:04 pm #124355
    hasanali95
    Member
    • Topics: 239
    • Replies: 248
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir it was the june 2011 qs on npv.all figures have been inflated and then the nominal rate has been applied in the bpp kit

    May 3, 2013 at 10:33 am #124408
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54717
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Sorry – I have found it (I don’t know where I was looking before 🙂 )

    Anyway, the question specifically asks you to take a nominal terms approach. This means to calculate the nominal (actual) cash flows and discount at the nominal (actual) cost of capital.

    If they had not said this, then you could certainly have taken the current price cash flows (ignoring inflation) and discounted at the real cost of capital which would be 1.12/1.03 – 1 = 0.0874 or 8.74%
    However it would then have meant you would have to calculate the discount factors yourself because the tables don’t have factors for 8.74%.

    December 5, 2013 at 11:04 am #150604
    Anonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Hi,

    Can you please tell me how get the inflated variable cost for 2nd year using sales volume

    Sales volume
    Year 1- <1m
    2 – b/w 1 & 1.9
    Current variable cost 2.80 & 3 respectively
    Inflation 3%
    First year- 2.80*3%*1+2.80= 2.884
    Second year – 3*3%*2+3= 3.18

    Answer given is 3.183

    Thank you in advance for your help

    December 5, 2013 at 3:22 pm #150676
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54717
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In the first year there is 1 years inflation and so it is 2.80 x (1.03) = 2.884

    In the second year there are 2 years inflation and so it is 3.00 x (1.03) x (1.03) = 3.1827 (the examiner has rounded it to 3 decimal places)

    October 26, 2014 at 6:53 pm #206127
    mariawaheed89
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Sir,
    hw wil we know that we ve to double the
    inflation rate.it say average is that the reason? .Thanks in advance.

    October 26, 2014 at 7:48 pm #206131
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54717
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It’s not simply a question of doubling it. The inflation rate is per year, so if the flow is in two years time then there will be two years inflation. If the flow is in three years time then there will be three years inflation, and so on.

    You really should watch the free lecture on this!

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