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bravado:
goodwill- the cash consideration is $118+ 12(FV arrangement) plus FV previously held for interest $15+ NCI 53 less FV of NA = $25.
there is a gain of $15( FV equity interest b4 combination)-$10( 1/6/7 consideration-fvoci)= $5 which is CR to RE, should it be OCI?
what is $12? FV arrangement I seen it was been CR to current liability?
and what does it mean when we have a negative goodwill? I don’t understand why in solutions it is CR to RE
Robby:
when it says accounted under OCI do we always have to CR RE and DR OCE for reclassification?
in here goodwill cash $16 +FV Previously held for interest + 5 + NCI 9 – FV of NA 30= $1
there is a gain of $5( FV equity interest b4 combination)-$2( 1/6/9 consideration-fvpl)= $5 which is CR to RE $3 same as above. it appears that they have recognized the full $5m in OCE and a gain of $2 in CR RE which I believe it is $5-3= $2.im comparing these two pass papers and it seems confusing the methods they used.
“there is a gain of $15( FV equity interest b4 combination)-$10( 1/6/7 consideration-fvoci)= $5 which is CR to RE, should it be OCI?”
No, it’s a reclassification of a formerly classified asset held for sale and, on disposal, any gain or loss will feed through PorL
“what is $12?”
From the question itself: “The fair value of this arrangement was estimated at $12 million at 1 June 2008 and at 31 May 2009 this value had not changed. This amount has not been included in the financial statements.”
So, it’s s contingent liability that is required to be recognised under IFRS3 as though it were 100% certain to crystallise
“and what does it mean when we have a negative goodwill? I don’t understand why in solutions it is CR to RE”
As explained in the F7 notes, negative goodwill arises when a company acquires another at a discount. They pay rather less for the net assets than the fair value of those assets. It’s also known as a “bargain purchase”, and effectively, it’s a profit made on acquisition (but we shouldn’t call it that)
If you spend cash of $100 and buy some goods with a fair value of $150, what’s happened to you? You’ve made a bargain purchase (or a profit on acquisition) and that’s why, like all profits, it has worked its way through to retained earnings
Robby 6/12
“when it says accounted under OCI do we always have to CR RE and DR OCE for reclassification?”
Which note number or line number will I find this quote in?
And I see none of the figures that you have quoted to me in either the question or the answer!
for bravado increase fv in mixterd of $5 is in RE (15-10) FV of interest equity- cash consideration
for robby increase FV increase of FV of zinc is $2 should be RE (5-2)= $3 rather than $2 same as above method.
such as dividend received $2m has been credited to OCI note (I) in Robby. what do we need to CR and DR
Kerri, I’m not ignoring you but I’m having great difficulty in trying to work out exactly what it is you want from me
The only question in your last post was “what do we need to CR and DR”? and a simple answer would be Dr Cash and Cr Investment Income
But I doubt very much that that will satisfy you so could you please post again and word it so that I have no lingering question in my mind as to whether or not I have replied in full
🙂
Just leave the first part out it will be only a few marks anyway.
I think we need to DR OCE and CR RE for dividends of reclassification.
Can you help me with the foreign question please. I will post in the next posting.
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