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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › BPP Workbook AFM – Activity 7 page 175 question answer on page 186
Hi tutor,
I don’t understand why to calculate the annuity for the year 5 onwards cash flow it is calculated as such 1/0.086-0.02. not understanding what this equation represents. why has the calculated wacc of 8.6% being deducted from 2% growth rate of cash flows from year 5 onwards?
Please get back to me thanks
