BPP question 42 Sigra Co Dec 12Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › BPP question 42 Sigra Co Dec 12This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total) AuthorPosts November 19, 2018 at 3:11 pm #485244 SaimonParticipantTopics: 123Replies: 55☆☆Gain from share for share exchange :Sir ,In this part i didn’t understand why share price of combined company was used to measure the gainand((3*3.644)-(2*4.50))/”2″Sir here i didn’t understand why “((3*3.644)-(2*4.50))” was divided by “2” November 20, 2018 at 7:22 am #485288 John MoffatKeymasterTopics: 56Replies: 53820☆☆☆☆☆For every 2 shares that were worth 4.50 each, they now have 3 shares worth 3.644 each. Therefore the gain is (3 x 3.644) – (2 x 4.50) for every 2 shares they owned. Since this is the gain for 2 shares, we divide by 2 to get the gain per share.AuthorPostsViewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)You must be logged in to reply to this topic.Log In Username: Password: Keep me signed in Log In