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BPP Question 36 Burger Queen

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › BPP Question 36 Burger Queen

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • October 21, 2014 at 11:35 am #205231
    AvatarAndy
    Member
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Baffled by part b of this one if anyone can help me please?

    Contract has a notional value of $500,000 and movement from 92.70 to 91.00 is 170 ticks, therefore 0.01 = 1 tick.

    It then states in the answer that each tick is worth $12.50.

    How does $500,000 x 0.01 = $12.50?

    Many thanks

    October 21, 2014 at 5:15 pm #205279
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It doesn’t 🙂

    With interest rate futures, we always divide the movement in the futures price by 400 (4 because they are always three month futures, and 100 because it is a percentage)

    So the profit or loss on 1 contract with a movement of 1 tick is:

    $500,000 x 0.01 / 400 = $12.50

    (If you watch my free lecture on this, I do explain the logic behind it all with examples (and also explain why, in fact, you never actually need to bother about ticks in the exam at all 🙂 )

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