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BPP Q148

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › BPP Q148

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
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  • January 26, 2020 at 10:27 am #559907
    hemantjp
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    During calculation of payback period, after cumulative balance divided by cash in flow, when should multiply by 12 months because sometimes i noticed, there were not multiply by 12 months just used as months whatever result got after divided.

    Thanks,

    January 26, 2020 at 10:55 am #559914
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Unless the question specifically states otherwise, we usually just leave the payable period in years.
    So, for example, if the payback period is 4.23 years, then either leave it as 4.23 or if you prefer then write is as 4 years 3 months (to the nearest month).

    It is not very often that the payback period is examined in Paper FM because it is examined in Paper MA.

    February 12, 2020 at 10:46 am #561464
    hemantjp
    Participant
    • Topics: 11
    • Replies: 7
    • ☆

    Dear Sir,

    September/Dece 2018 sample question

    No 32 Oscar,

    In option 1 calculation, why should not include 2% bad debts ? I think it should be cost to company , I know it’s not non recourse

    Thanks

    February 12, 2020 at 1:44 pm #561481
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54659
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    In future please start a new thread when asking about a different topic. It is because many students use the search box to see if their questions have already been answered, and our answers are to help everyone.

    Under option 1, the company will be suffering the bad debts whether or not they use the factor. Therefore there is no saving of bad debts when using the factor.

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