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BPP q136 Laurel

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › BPP q136 Laurel

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • November 19, 2016 at 12:00 pm #349980
    caoimhin23
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Hi for the above question, I am just wondering for the Fair Value Adjustment.How is the depreciation calculated? As in how is 12m * 3/4 ? Where has the 3/4 come from?

    November 19, 2016 at 3:00 pm #349999
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I don’t have any material in which I could find the Laurel question

    Does the BPP material give you an exam reference?

    November 19, 2016 at 3:33 pm #350006
    caoimhin23
    Member
    • Topics: 14
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    Thanks,

    No it doesn’t mention anything.

    The Note in the question is

    On January 2007 Hardy owned some items of equipment with Book Value of 45m that had a fair value of 57m. These were originally purchased by hardy on 1 January 2005 and are being depreciated over 6 years..

    The year end for the question is 31dec 2009..

    Just not sure where the depreciation figure is coming from

    57-45= 12m

    Extra Depreciation = 12m *3/4??

    November 19, 2016 at 4:05 pm #350011
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    This looks to me that you have mis-interpreted the scenario

    The assets has a fair value of 57 as at date of acquisition but had a carrying value of only 45 as at that date

    So what we’re looking at is a fair value adjustment of 12

    Now the question is ot clear from your post

    Is the 45 carrying value being depreciated over 6 more years or is the carrying value of 45 net of 2 years’ depreciation and now being depreciated over the remaining 4 years

    In gfact, if I were really comprehensive , I could see that the carrying value as at date of acquisition was BEFORE that second year’s depreciation has been accounted for

    So …

    … are we looking at 45 revalued to 57 to be depreciated over 6 years, or

    45 revalued to 57 to be depreciated over 5 years, or

    45 revalued to 57 to be depreciated over 4 years

    I would need to see the question to be able to be definitive about this

    But that 12,000 is nothing at all to do with depreciation – it’s a revaluation

    November 19, 2016 at 11:03 pm #350081
    pattard
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 2
    • ☆

    I also have the same problem. Can’t understand why we have this working in the answer:

    Fair value adjustments:

    PPE (57-45)
    At acquisition date $12m ?goodwill
    Movement ($9m*) ? ret’d earnings
    *extra depreciation $12m ×3/4

    At year end $3m ?PPE

    Regarding your question regarding depreciation it is worked out on the remaining 4 years.

    Thanks
    Pauline

    November 20, 2016 at 7:26 am #350097
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23321
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Ah – now I’m beginning to understand

    The revaluation from 45 to 57 was done 3 years ago as at the date of acquisition – it was presumably a fair value adjustment and the asset was 2 years old at that date

    The asset that was originally being depreciated over 6 years still had a further 4 years of estimated useful life as at date of acquisition

    It is good practice, though not a requirement, that as a revalued asset is used over time, the additional / excess depreciation that is being charged on the asset because of the revaluation should be transferred from revaluation reserve to retained earnings

    Think of it as compensation for the retained earnings because the various profit for the years since revaluation are being artificially reduced as a result of that additional depreciation

    Is that better?

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