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Bpp practice kit,question 18.6

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Bpp practice kit,question 18.6

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • December 3, 2015 at 4:29 pm #287324
    veverica1983
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 21
    • ☆☆

    I don’ understand why they multiply dir. labour with 0,15? Thanks

    December 3, 2015 at 4:41 pm #287331
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 56
    • Replies: 51560
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Sorry – I really do want to help – but it seems that you must be using a past edition of the BPP Kit (because there is no question 18.6 in the current edition. Question 18 is a full question.)

    I would guess that the question you are referring to is in the current edition somewhere but with a different number. If you type the first few words of the question then I will try and find it.

    December 3, 2015 at 6:12 pm #287350
    veverica1983
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 21
    • ☆☆

    A manufacturing company has the following monthly budget

    sales 480,000
    dir.mat 140,000
    dir.labour 110,000
    VO 50,000
    FO 130,000
    profit 50,000

    Hope you will find it, thanks

    December 4, 2015 at 7:44 am #287413
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 56
    • Replies: 51560
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I have found it 🙂

    It is because the sales are higher by 15% and so if they sell and produce 15% more, then they will need 15% more labour hours (and those extra 15% hours will need to be paid at the higher pay, so 50% more for these hours).

    December 4, 2015 at 7:45 am #287415
    veverica1983
    Member
    • Topics: 36
    • Replies: 21
    • ☆☆

    Thanx

    December 4, 2015 at 8:33 am #287439
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 56
    • Replies: 51560
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
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