- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by .
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for September 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Bpp practice kit,question 18.6
I don’ understand why they multiply dir. labour with 0,15? Thanks
Sorry – I really do want to help – but it seems that you must be using a past edition of the BPP Kit (because there is no question 18.6 in the current edition. Question 18 is a full question.)
I would guess that the question you are referring to is in the current edition somewhere but with a different number. If you type the first few words of the question then I will try and find it.
A manufacturing company has the following monthly budget
sales 480,000
dir.mat 140,000
dir.labour 110,000
VO 50,000
FO 130,000
profit 50,000
Hope you will find it, thanks
I have found it 🙂
It is because the sales are higher by 15% and so if they sell and produce 15% more, then they will need 15% more labour hours (and those extra 15% hours will need to be paid at the higher pay, so 50% more for these hours).
Thanx
You are welcome 🙂
