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Bpp practice kit,question 18.6

DDragana10y ago
I don’ understand why they multiply dir. labour with 0,15? Thanks
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#1
Sorry - I really do want to help - but it seems that you must be using a past edition of the BPP Kit (because there is no question 18.6 in the current edition. Question 18 is a full question.) I would guess that the question you are referring to is in the current edition somewhere but with a different number. If you type the first few words of the question then I will try and find it.
DDragana10y ago#2
A manufacturing company has the following monthly budget sales 480,000 dir.mat 140,000 dir.labour 110,000 VO 50,000 FO 130,000 profit 50,000 Hope you will find it, thanks
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#3
I have found it :-) It is because the sales are higher by 15% and so if they sell and produce 15% more, then they will need 15% more labour hours (and those extra 15% hours will need to be paid at the higher pay, so 50% more for these hours).
DDragana10y ago#4
Thanx
John MoffatJohn MoffatTutor10y ago#5
You are welcome :-)
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