Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Bpp practice kit,question 18.6
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
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- December 3, 2015 at 4:29 pm #287324
I don’ understand why they multiply dir. labour with 0,15? Thanks
December 3, 2015 at 4:41 pm #287331Sorry – I really do want to help – but it seems that you must be using a past edition of the BPP Kit (because there is no question 18.6 in the current edition. Question 18 is a full question.)
I would guess that the question you are referring to is in the current edition somewhere but with a different number. If you type the first few words of the question then I will try and find it.
December 3, 2015 at 6:12 pm #287350A manufacturing company has the following monthly budget
sales 480,000
dir.mat 140,000
dir.labour 110,000
VO 50,000
FO 130,000
profit 50,000Hope you will find it, thanks
December 4, 2015 at 7:44 am #287413I have found it 🙂
It is because the sales are higher by 15% and so if they sell and produce 15% more, then they will need 15% more labour hours (and those extra 15% hours will need to be paid at the higher pay, so 50% more for these hours).
December 4, 2015 at 7:45 am #287415Thanx
December 4, 2015 at 8:33 am #287439You are welcome 🙂
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