Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA AFM Advanced Financial Management Forums › Bpp mock 1 Q3
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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- December 1, 2013 at 1:48 am #148733
Can someone explain the additional % given at the end of the answers for the market values/betas for impex?
They are used in the Var calc (part b) as an additional % in that calc but I cannot tell how they were calculated.
They are marked as (needed below)……. Equity 7.84%. Debt 1.00%. Total 5.5488%.Thanks
December 1, 2013 at 1:02 pm #148817The std deviation of a share is the beta of the share x the std deviation of the market.
Similarly the std deviation of debt is the beta of the debt x the std deviation of the market.If you look at the answer to (a) workings (ii), about three lines down it says ‘So for Impex we have’, followed by a table. The last column of the table is calculating the std deviations for equity, debt, and total.
December 1, 2013 at 1:38 pm #148829Thanks. Where does it give the Stan deviation of the market?
Working backwards, the debt Beta is 0.98. So divide 7.84 by 0.98 gives 8 which must be the Stan dev of the market. I can’t find 8 mentioned anywhere…December 1, 2013 at 1:47 pm #148830It says that the market is returning 10% with a risk of 8% – the risk is the standard deviation.
December 1, 2013 at 2:00 pm #148833Ohhhhh I see.
Thank you. That was really beginning to bug me!!
Appreciate your helpDecember 1, 2013 at 2:56 pm #148862You are welcome 🙂
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