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bpp mcq 61.2

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › bpp mcq 61.2

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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  • May 22, 2015 at 9:54 pm #247999
    mehreen245
    Member
    • Topics: 15
    • Replies: 21
    • ☆

    about to pay div of $0.50, EPS=$1.50 ,Net assets per share=$6, current share price=$4.50/share
    cost of equity?
    according to the formula it shouldnt be cost of equity=0.50/4.50=11.11%?

    May 23, 2015 at 8:40 am #248058
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54835
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No.

    You need to use the dividend growth formula ‘backwards’ (since we know the market value, you can calculate Re) but for this you also need the dividend growth rate. For the dividend growth rate you need to use Gordons growth approximation. You know the rate of the retention and you know the return on investment, so the dividend growth rate is 16.7%.

    Also, in the dividend growth formula Po is the ex div market value. The value given in the question of $4.50 is the cum div value (because they are about to pay a dividend. The ex div value is 4.50 – 0.50 = $4.00

    (Our free lectures on the cost of equity do cover all of the above).

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