- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by .
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Interactive BPP books for September 2026 exams, recommended by OpenTuition.
Get discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › BPP MCQ 34.3 investment appraisal
Sir
why first inflow arise in Year 0?
There is no such thing as ‘year 0’. Time 0 is a point in time – it is now. Time 1 is one year from now, and so on.
The question says that the the cash inflows are received in advance, and so the inflow for the first year is received at the start of the year – i.e. now, time 0.
The inflow for the second year is received in 1 years time – i.e. time 1.
And so on 🙂
