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BPP Highveldt

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › BPP Highveldt

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by MikeLittle.
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  • February 19, 2017 at 9:56 am #373118
    acca9
    Member
    • Topics: 68
    • Replies: 50
    • ☆☆

    Many thanks for the Pedantic/ Sophistic answer. That was a fabulous explanation.

    Another question

    Samsons development project was completed on 30 September 20X4 at a cost of $50 million. $10 million of this has been amortised by 31 March 20X5. Development cost capitalised by Samson at the date of acquisition were$18 million.

    Highveldt’s directors are of the opinion that Samson’s development costs do not meet the criteria in IAS 38 Intangible Assets for recognition of an asset.

    The solution was to write back amortisation at $10 in retained earnings, besides for this in retained earnings 50-18 was deducted.

    Also, 18000 was deducted from goodwill. Why?

    Thanks in advance.

    February 19, 2017 at 11:38 am #373130
    MikeLittle
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 27
    • Replies: 23327
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Let’s deal with this last one first:

    “Also, 18000 was deducted from goodwill. Why?”

    At date of acquisition there was included within the fair value of the subsidiary’s net assets an amount of $18 million capitalised development expenditure

    On reflection, the Highfeldt’s directors felt that this should not have been capitalised as at date of acquisition and nor should the subsequent additional amount of $32 million (giving us the aggregate of $50 million capitalised development expenditure)

    So, assets at date of acquisition are overstated and that means that goodwill is understated … are you sure that $18 million was DEDUCTED from goodwill?

    Subsequent to acquisition a further $32 million has been spent on this project leaving us with a $50 million asset that is now being amortised

    But it should never have been capitalised and therefore should never have been amortised

    What we have is a $50 million asset less $10 million amortisation so let’s reverse that $10 million to start with

    Dr Asset $10 million
    Cr Retained Earnings $10 million

    Now we’re back to a $50 million asset that shouldn’t be an asset at all

    Of this amount $18 million was included as part of the assets at date of acquisition and reduced the excess of the purchase consideration element that represented goodwill and the other $32 million was added subsequent to acquisition

    Dealing with the $18 million, the double entry should be to:

    Dr Goodwill $18 million
    Cr Development expenditure account and that brings that account down to $32 million

    and now write off that $32 million as it should have been written off previously – as incurred

    the aggregation of these entries is:

    Dr Development Expenditure asset $10 million
    Dr Goodwill $18 million
    Dr Retained earnings $32 million
    Cr Retained Earnings $10 million
    Cr Development Expenditure asset $18 million
    Cr Development Expenditure asset $32 million

    We started this exercise with a net asset of $40 million, Retained earnings of (say) $100 million and Goodwill of (say) $20 million

    We have now made adjustments of net figures:

    Dr Goodwill $18 million
    Dr Retained Earnings $22 million
    Cr Development Expenditure asset $40 million and we finish up with:

    a net asset of $Zero, Retained earnings of (say) $78 million and Goodwill of (say) $38 million

    OK?

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