• Skip to primary navigation
  • Skip to main content
  • Skip to primary sidebar
Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free ACCA & CIMA online courses from OpenTuition

Free Notes, Lectures, Tests and Forums for ACCA and CIMA exams

  • ACCA
  • CIMA
  • FIA
  • OBU
  • Books
  • Forums
  • Ask AI
  • Search
  • Register
  • Login
  • ACCA Forums
  • Ask ACCA Tutor
  • FIA Forums
  • CIMA Forums
  • OBU Forums
  • Qualified Members forum
  • Buy/Sell Books
  • All Forums
  • Latest Topics

March 2026 ACCA Exams

Comments & Instant poll

20% off ACCA & CIMA Books

OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for June 2026 exams.
Get your discount code >>

bpp examkit

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › bpp examkit

  • This topic has 5 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 24, 2020 at 3:28 pm #574620
    chandni24
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    hi sir i have watched the lecture relating to this topic but i don’t get how to do copper co A) i

    June 24, 2020 at 4:50 pm #574628
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    What topic is it?

    June 25, 2020 at 12:57 pm #574665
    chandni24
    Participant
    • Topics: 25
    • Replies: 6
    • ☆

    investment appraisal

    June 25, 2020 at 3:12 pm #574678
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The actual discounting involved is easy. Most of the work involved using techniques from previous exams (Papers FA and PM – were F2 and F5)).

    There are 9 possible things that can happen:

    1M in the first year and then 2M in the second year, with a probability of 0.1 x 0.3 = 0.03 or
    1M in the first year and then 3M in the second year, with a probability of 0.1 x 0.6 = 0.06 or
    1M in the first year and then 5M in the second year, with a probability of 0.1 x 0.1 = 0.01 or
    2M in the first year and then 2M in the second year, with a probability of 0.5 x 0.3 = 0.15 or
    2M in the first year and then 3M in the second year, with a probability of 0.5 x 0.6 = 0.3

    and so on.

    Calculate the PV of each of the nine alternatives and then the rest should follow sensibly 🙂

    July 27, 2021 at 3:01 am #629523
    Nikitagarwal
    Participant
    • Topics: 154
    • Replies: 147
    • ☆☆☆

    Sir, I dont understand how did they calculated 1,013 , 216 , 1,378 etc – NPV

    July 27, 2021 at 9:00 am #629551
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54830
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The NPV is the PV of the inflows less the initial investment.

    So, for the first line in the table, 2,487 – 3,500 = (1,013)

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
Log In

Primary Sidebar

Kaplan ACCA Free Trial

Donate
If you have benefited from our materials, please donate

ACCA News:

ACCA My Exam Performance for non-variant

Applied Skills exams is available NOW

ACCA Options:  “Read the Mind of the Marker” articles

Subscribe to ACCA’s Student Accountant Direct

ACCA CBE Exams – Instant Poll

How was your exam, and what was the exam result?

BT CBE exam was.. | MA CBE exam was..
FA CBE exam was.. | LW CBE exam was..

Donate

If you have benefited from OpenTuition please donate.

PQ Magazine

Latest Comments

  • Ana1674 on CIMA BA1 Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient
  • tehreem21 on MA Chapter 2 Questions Sources of Data
  • vesuvianthree0 on What is Assurance? – ACCA Audit and Assurance (AA)
  • amanization on What is Assurance? – ACCA Audit and Assurance (AA)
  • Sid24012003 on Government grants – ACCA Financial Reporting (FR)

Copyright © 2026 · Support · Contact · Advertising · OpenLicense · About · Sitemap · Comments · Log in