Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › blipton(12/08)
- This topic has 5 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated 7 years ago by ingelbert.
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- May 31, 2013 at 10:01 am #127956
why the fixed cost of 1.7m is included in the cash flow, only incremental fixed cash flow should be allowed isn’t it?
May 31, 2013 at 10:51 am #127960Also how is the terminal value arrived and why it is not taxed.
Sir what is the difference between realisable value and residual value in this type of question.June 2, 2013 at 11:29 am #128238Since they are based in Dubai and are building a new hotel in London, the fixed costs must all be extra to what they currently have – they must all arise as a result of the new project.
June 2, 2013 at 11:39 am #128240The terminal value has been calculated by inflating at the rate at which property values are expected to increase (8%).
Realisable / residual values mean the same thing in this type of question.
The reason it has not been taxed is because there is no mention that it will actually be sold (we are putting in a final value to effectively replace the future potential cash flows). However, if you did tax it then it would not lose you marks – it is really an assumption (and you should state any assumptions).November 12, 2015 at 3:23 am #281839Hi sir,
The terminal value if calculated as 6.2m-1.2m inflated by 1.08^5 and why not 6? As the terminal value is received at the end of year 6.
Thanks.
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