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Blipton International

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Blipton International

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 1 year ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
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  • August 20, 2024 at 4:46 pm #710073
    AvatarKatz
    Participant
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Hello Mr. John

    In Blipton International question, the exchange rates are calculated by dividing inflation rate in US by inflation rate in UK. But in the question, it is said that Blipton reports and accounts for all the transactions in dollars.

    So, exchange rates should be calculated by dividing inflation rate in UK by inflation rate in US, right?

    August 20, 2024 at 10:29 pm #710094
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am away from home at the moment and so do not have the past exams with me.

    Please ask again on Friday which is when I return home, and then I will be able to explain.

    August 27, 2024 at 7:57 am #710401
    AvatarKatz
    Participant
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 10
    • ☆

    Hi Mr.John
    In Blipton International question, how to know which is home and which is foreign currency?

    August 27, 2024 at 9:20 am #710407
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54836
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The cash flows are given in Pounds, and Blipton reports in dollars.

    So the exchange rate to convert Pounds to $’s at time 0 is 1/1.4925 = 0.6700. This is the Pound/$ rate.

    So to calculate the Pound/$ rate in future years we use $ inflation as the base rate and Pound inflation as the ‘other’ (‘c’) rate. Therefore at time 1 the exchange rate is 0.6700 x 1.025/1.048 =0.6552 (and so on).

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