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Blipton Dec'08

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Blipton Dec'08

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 11 years ago by John Moffat.
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    Posts
  • November 11, 2014 at 7:18 am #208963
    hadeaz86
    Member
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Hello.

    Can anyone explain on how to get the terminal value of GBP8,915,309?

    From my knowledge, the calculation should be GBP6.2m x 1.08^6 = GBP9,838,620…

    Any assistance would be much appreciated. Thank you.

    November 11, 2014 at 9:47 am #209028
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54832
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    First, because the value is increasing at 8% in real terms (i.e. ignoring general inflation), the actual rate of increase will be higher. It will increase by 10.7% p.a. ((1.08 x 1.025) – 1)

    Secondly, because note 1 of the question says that construction costs are paid at the end of the year, there is will only be 5 years inflation at 10.7%

    Finally, note 3 in the question says that there is a charge for repairs and renewals payable on disposal of 1.2M quoted at current prices.

    So…the net amount is (6.2M x 1.107^5) – (1.2M x 1.025^6)

    which is 10306941 – 1391632 = 8915309

    A horrible exam question 🙂

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