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Biscuit division

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › Biscuit division

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 4 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • June 29, 2021 at 3:56 pm #626608
    sadafwaheed1
    Participant
    • Topics: 84
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    Sir I did not understand this explanation of part d
    This decision will be in the best interests of the company as a whole, since the RI of the investment alone is
    actually negative ($132k – $212k = $(80k)).

    Could you please explain where the figure $132K comes from ? How is it calculated?

    June 29, 2021 at 5:38 pm #626632
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54789
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The profit with the investment is $3864. The profit without the investment (from the answer to part (a) is $3732. So the difference is $132.

    Similarly the imputed interest with the investment is $2532. The imputed interest without the investment (from part (a)) is $2320. So the difference is $212.

    July 1, 2021 at 9:23 am #626779
    sadafwaheed1
    Participant
    • Topics: 84
    • Replies: 32
    • ☆☆

    Thankyou sir now it’s clear

    July 1, 2021 at 4:07 pm #626803
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54789
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • The topic ‘Biscuit division’ is closed to new replies.

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