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Can you help me understand how “Better quality material was easier to process” results in having a favourable direct labour efficiency variance? (BPP 15.6)
My thought process was, that if a product is in a better quality, it requires more time to produce therefore resulting in adverse labour efficiency variance.
However I do understand that if a product is easier to process, then it will result in (F) labour efficiency. To me “Better quality material was easier to process” does not make sense, please help me understand. Thank you!
The question is not referring to the quality of the production but the quality of the materials being used.
Better quality materials are likely to be easier to work with which will mean faster working.
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