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Bento Co June 2015

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › Bento Co June 2015

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • August 16, 2016 at 11:05 am #333497
    AvatarAnonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Using the dividend valuation model to determine the value of Okazu Co. I don’t understand how the examiner got 7.5% to calculate the value of the company taken into consideration the 60% fall in dividend from year 4.

    Thanks.

    August 16, 2016 at 3:51 pm #333607
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54843
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    It is not the dividend that falls by 60% – the question says that the growth rate in dividends will fall by 60%.

    The current growth rate is 18.7% and so the rate of growth will fall to 40% x 18.7%.

    November 7, 2017 at 7:39 pm #414751
    Avatarameera98
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆

    can we say g=75% retention rate * 12% cost of equity ( which is the return on equity) ?

    November 8, 2017 at 9:12 am #414804
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54843
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    No, because clearly from the results of part (a) of the question, this is not the growth rate for the first four years.

    November 25, 2017 at 8:15 am #417900
    Avatarameera98
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆

    why have we used 8% to find annuity for the equal repayments?
    8% is not the cost of debt nor the yield to maturity..its the coupon right since they said ‘8%bond’…?

    November 25, 2017 at 8:22 am #417915
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54843
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    8% is indeed neither the cost of debt nor the yield to maturity. However that is irrelevant.

    The question says that the interest on the bond is 8% and the repayments will be of equal amounts each year.
    The PV of repayments (however they are made) discounted at the rate of interest on the borrowing, will always be equal to the amount of the borrowing. The whole point of discounting is accounting for the interest being charged.

    Try is yourself – however the repayments are being made, you will find that the PV of the repayments discounted at the rate of interest on the borrowing will always equal the amount of the borrowing.

    November 25, 2017 at 8:33 am #417917
    Avatarameera98
    Member
    • Topics: 3
    • Replies: 34
    • ☆

    Thank you. So to summarize, we used the 8% here because we did not know the amount of the repayment. So the PV of repayments at coupon is equal to the loan, as a rule of thumb.
    But in other normal cases, we use the kd or IRR to discount.

    November 25, 2017 at 3:38 pm #417959
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54843
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – the PV of the repayments discounted at the interest rate will always equal the amount of the loan.

    As regards using kd or IRR, it depends what it is you are trying to do 🙂

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  • The topic ‘Bento Co June 2015’ is closed to new replies.

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