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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA TX-UK Exams › Beneficial Loan
Hey mate,
Okay so whats the formula for the beneficial loan average method? Im pretty sure its loan at start of the year plus load at end of the year divide by 2 right?
Well I think ACCA has a mistake on their pas papers.
The question is question 4 b of the link below.
(b) Francine is employed by Fringe plc. On 1 August 2014, Fringe plc provided Francine with a loan of £96,000 to
help her purchase a holiday cottage. On 1 October 2014, the loan was increased by a further £14,000 so that
Francine could renovate the cottage. Francine pays interest at an annual rate of 1·5% on this loan.
The taxable benefit in respect of this loan is calculated using the average method.
Required:
Calculate Francine’s taxable benefit for the tax year 2014–15 in respect of the loan from Fringe plc
ACCA`s answer is
(b) Francine – Beneficial loan 2014–15
96,000 + (96,000 + 14,000)
––––––––––––––––––––––––––– x 3·25% x 8/12 2,232 1½
2
Interest paid – 96,000 at 1·5% x 2/12 240
– 110,000 at 1·5% x 6/12 825
–––– (1,065) 1½
–––––– Taxable benefit 1,167
–––––– –––
The formatting isnt very clear because Ive pasted it but you can refer to the link below for the marking scheme/ACCAs answer.
They have put 96000 as the loan at the start of the year while it was taken on first August. How does that make sense? Kindly advise.
Link to the Question- https://www.accaglobal.com/content/dam/acca/global/PDF-students/acca/f6/exampapers/bwa/D15_Hybrid_F6UK_QP.pdf
When the loan has been taken out during the tax year you use the original amount of the loan (96,000) you do not use NIL.
As the loan has then clearly not been available to the taxpayer for the whole year the benefit is then time apportioned
