Dear tutor:
I came up with another question: if the question tells us that
1. "basis risk may be assumed to be zero at the time the contracts are closed out"
does it meaning the at the time the contract is closed, the spot exchange rate is the same as the future rate?
2. "basis risk may be assumed to derease linearly", does it meaning that we can calculate as we usually do: we use spot rate of contract closing date plus or minus basis risk we calculated?
I am not sure if I explain my question clearly or not, anyway, if it looks confusing to you, pls just help to tell me the difference of these 2 assumptions. Thanks
I came up with another question: if the question tells us that
1. "basis risk may be assumed to be zero at the time the contracts are closed out"
does it meaning the at the time the contract is closed, the spot exchange rate is the same as the future rate?
2. "basis risk may be assumed to derease linearly", does it meaning that we can calculate as we usually do: we use spot rate of contract closing date plus or minus basis risk we calculated?
I am not sure if I explain my question clearly or not, anyway, if it looks confusing to you, pls just help to tell me the difference of these 2 assumptions. Thanks
